I.
Using the antiderivative of $$\cos(x)$$, we have $$\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \cos(x) dx = \sin(\pi/2) - \sin(0) = 1.$$
II.
If one mistakenly uses $$-\sin(x)$$ as the antiderivative, then $$\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \cos(x) dx$$ would be computed as $$-\sin(\pi/2) + \sin(0) = -1.$$
III.
A geometric interpretation of the area under $$\cos(x)$$ from 0 to $$\pi/2$$ also yields an area of 1.
Which of the statements correctly describe the evaluation of the integral $$\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \cos(x) dx$$?